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@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

The Son of God was "made of a woman" (Gal. 4:4) as to his true human body and human nature, but the God who was manifested in the flesh to become the Son of God could never be made (created).

@koolkid.7552

5 жыл бұрын

The word is the father.

@christrevelation4043

4 жыл бұрын

@@globalimpactministries766 What does it mean then in John 1 that says "the Logos(Word) was God"? This is the one thing I can't get past.

@globalimpactministries766

4 жыл бұрын

@@christrevelation4043 The Word Was God - John 1:1c John 1:1 says, “In the beginning was the word (logos), and the word (logos) was with God, and the word (logos) was God.” The precise word order of the Greek text actually says, “and God was the word” rather than “and the word was God.” It is hard to imagine that the use of the word God appearing twice in John 1:1 would be a different God Person from the only true God the Father Himself. There are two scripturally sound explanations to show how God’s word (logos) can be called God Himself in John 1:1 which are both true. 1.) GOD THE FATHER IDENTIFIED HIS SON AS GOD BEFORE THE SON EXISTED AS A SON We know that the scriptures state that God expressed His divine plan for the ages before the beginning of human time. Isaiah 41:4 states that God called forth "the generations from the beginning" i.e. all generations of human history. The apostle Peter wrote in 1 Peter 1:20 that Christ was, "foreknown before the creation of the world." Hence, all things about the Son of God were already “foreknown” and expressed by God before the beginning of human time. This is why the apostle John was led to use the Greek word "logos" in John 1:1. The context of Heb. 1:8-9 is a Messianic prophecy from Psalm 45:6-7 which says that the Messiah would be called "God" while also having a God. For the scriptures affirm that the Son of God would be exalted by God to sit on "the throne of God" (Rev. 22:3) which inspired scripture reveals is the throne of David (as the throne of Yahweh - 1 Chronicles 29:23). Psalm 45:6-7 and Heb. 1:8-9 could not be addressing a pre-incarnate God the Son because the text says, "your God has anointed you". If a pre-incarnate God the Son had a God and was anointed by his God before the incarnation, then that Son would be an Arian Son rather than a Trinitarian Son. Wherefore, Jesus as a child born and son given was already called "God" in God's logos (His expressed thought) before his virgin conception and birth. The human child born and son given can also be called "God" because he was the reproduced copy of the Father's Being as a fully complete human being (Heb. 1:3; Heb. 2:17). This explains why Jesus as the expressed thought of God (logos) was already addressed by the Psalmist as God when he wrote, "Your throne O God." For God as God is "the only true God" the Father, but God also became a true man who would also be called "God with us” (Matthew 1:23) in the prophetic future. 2.) GOD’S WORD IS GOD JUST AS GOD IS LIGHT AND GOD IS LOVE 1 John 1:5 states that “… God IS LIGHT, and in Him is no darkness.” This is the same thing as saying that “The Word WAS GOD” in John 1:1. God’s word (logos) is the expressed thought of Himself as an aspect or attribute of Himself just like “God is light” expresses the fact that “light” is an aspect or attribute of God Himself. The prophet Daniel wrote in Daniel 2:22 that God, “knows what is in the darkness, and THE LIGHT DWELLS WITH HIM (NASB).” It would be ridiculous for anyone to suggest that “God is light” in 1 John 1:5 proves that the light of God is another distinct divine person beside Himself called God the Light Person. Likewise, no reasonable person should suggest that God’s “LIGHT DWELLS WITH GOD” in Daniel 2:22 and “God IS LIGHT” in 1 John 1:5 proves that the light of God is another distinct divine person beside Himself called “God The Light”. In like manner, no reasonable person can affirm that the “WORD WAS WITH GOD” in John 1:1 proves that the Word “with God” is a distinct God the word (logos = “expressed thought”) Person as a distinct divine person beside Himself. In like manner, 1 John 4:8 says, “Whoever does not love does not know God, because GOD IS LOVE.” God is Love and God is Light just as “God was the word” in John 1:1. God’s word is “living” according to Hebrews 4:12 and God’s word is “spirit and life” according to John 6:63. Hence, God’s word (logos) is an aspect or attribute of Himself just like God is Light and God is Love. Wherefore, Trinitarians depend upon a great deal of imaginative eisegesis in their conception of an alleged God the word Person in John 1:1 as there is no evidence to show that the word of God (the expressed thought of God) is another distinct divine person beside God Himself.

@porthosdherblay5102

4 жыл бұрын

who do you thing u R said it could never be made. may be u have no faith in GOD, ounce U have u will believe.

Everything was created by him and for him , so he is God and eternal from everlasting.

@fromanabe8639

3 жыл бұрын

Jesus did not exist, except in God's plan for the salvation of humanity, until God, the Father, placed a fertilized ovum in Mary's womb.

Im very greatful in your good works may God bless you

@globalimpactministries766

5 жыл бұрын

Thanks!

The Word he spoke was "LET IT BE" as we can see in Genesis in the old Testament. The things that happen in the beginning of the Gospel of John are happening BEFORE Genesis. God says: "LET THERE BE (light, a firmament...etc)"

Neither question is true in your title. Yahshua said he spoke the logos (words) that BELONGED TO HIS FATHER. Yahshua did not become the logos. The logos of YHWH is His divine plan that He used when He procreated Yahshua. Yahshua was in YHWH's divine plan before the earth was made. There is no such thing as a pre-existing Jesus in heaven. The trinity doctrine is heresy. There is no such being as God the Son in the Bible.

@LONGMAN772

5 жыл бұрын

Yeshua is from everlasting, not created.

@Lovingkindness.

3 жыл бұрын

“Yahshua” is a fake word. It does not exist in Hebrew. Otherwise I agree. Fleshly minds have made up the trinity.

we can assume that once the holy spirit was given then we could and would be born again in jesus name

So do you believe Jesus is the Father in flesh or more the only creation that existed in the logos or plan of the Father since the beginning and was fully man not be worshipped but followed as a king like king David or a prophet like Moses ?

Knowledgeable

Oftentimes the word, logos, is used of the common 'word' but in Greek the word 'logos' means 'a word or phrase that identifies (labels) a thought, idea, or concept' not 'the EXPRESSED THOUGHT OF A PERSON'; it is a 'word' even without expression. That Logos is a God no matter whatever imputed into the word 'logos' this 'Logos' is God and Isaiah 43:10 'before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me', or, God's thought could not have been God, a God. The Logos of God as the Son of God in 'of God' shows a relationship of, with, God the Logos. Further, Jesus expressed the words of God 'the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak' John 12:49 but he also said 'as my Father has taught me' John 8:28 if Jesus had just been God's expressed thought become a man could he say 'the Father has taught me'? as well as 'the Father has commanded me, what I should say, and what I SHOULD SPEAK'? if Jesus was already God's expressed thought???? Nor how could Jesus repeat what God had taught him in John 8:17-18 'and it is also written in your law (John 10:34-35:Scripture), that the testimony of two (Matthew 18:16) men is true. I am one that testifies about myself, and the Father that sent me testifies about me' my notes: God in heaven, the Father (John 8:54), and Jesus are men: each has their own body, soul, and spirit of man within them, meaning each has their own self-awareness.............

I am in no wise an Arian, but after hearing that Oneness Pentecostals believe that the begetting took place at the incarnation this question burns on my mind, if the begetting was at the incarnation why then does the scriptures say that Jesus was the firstborn of all creation meaning before time even began when the incarnation took place years after the wold began?

@globalimpactministries766

6 жыл бұрын

Henry Salem - God created all things in Christ, through Christ, and for Christ within His mind and planning. Heb. 1:1-2 informs us that God created the "ages" ("aiones" is "ages" in Greek which are "time periods" - not "worlds") through Christ. Since the human ages (time periods) could not have been created during the Genesis act of creation, we know that God created all things through Christ within His logos (Mind, Reason, Planning). Colossians 1:15 also inform us that Jesus was already "the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation" within God's foreordained plan "before the world was" created. For how could an alleged pre-incarnate Almighty God Person be called a God "the Firstborn of all creation" (vs.15) and a God "the Firstborn from among the dead" (vs. 18)? Can the Almighty as the Almighty be a God the Firstborn? Certainly not! The fact that Col. 1:15 addresses Christ as "the firstborn of all creation" (similar to Son being "the beginning of the creation of God" in Rev. 3:14) proves that Col. 1:16 addresses all things being created in Christ Jesus, through Christ Jesus, and for Christ Jesus in God's foreknown predestined plan before the actual creation took place. This explains why the "visible" "thrones, lordships, rulers, and authorities" (Col. 1:16) of all human ages were created "in him", "through him", and "for him" (Christ Jesus) in Col. 1:16. The human rulers throughout world history could not have been created in the Genesis act of creation or they would have been walking around the Garden of Eden with Adam and Eve. Wherefore, much like an architect first creates a detailed blueprint before actually building a building, so the context of Heb. 1:1-2 and Col. 1:15-18 proves that the scriptures are addressing the creation of all things within God's mental preconception before the actual creation took place in the Genesis act of creation. According to the Talmud, Tractate Pesachim 54a, "The Messiah" was "pre-conceived in God's thoughts." Hence, God first chose Christ as His chosen servant (Isaiah 43:10-11), then He "chose us in him" ("in Christ" - Ephes. 1:4) by being "predestined through Jesus Christ" (Ephes. 1:5). Just as God's elect were "predestined through Jesus Christ" in Ephesians 1:5, so God created all things through being "predestined through Jesus Christ" before the physical act of creation took place in Genesis.

@remisofola270

6 жыл бұрын

Why can't human ages be created through Christ? according to the video Christ did not have a real physical life until he was born in the flesh, How could God created all human ages before he was born or conceived? note that he did not become the son until he was supposedly begotten in Mary by the Holy Spirit? this whole doctrine is a fudge.

@globalimpactministries766

6 жыл бұрын

God first preconceived His detailed purpose and plan for the human ages before He actually began His creation work much like an architect first writes down his detailed plan to make a building (a blueprint) before he actually created the building. In this light we can see that God created the ages (time periods) of all human history in, through, and for Christ because the man Christ Jesus was the predestined Lord of the Universe within God's own Mind and planning.

@PrintOfLife

6 жыл бұрын

If that is true, Genesis would have been written that Adam was created from the "mind" of GOD and not in the IMAGE and LIKENESS of GOD.

@remisofola270

6 жыл бұрын

Your comment is false. John 1 Word does not say that is the plan of God nor does it say it was in the mind of God. The Word in John 1 is a metonym for God that is real and had real activity. John 1 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. 5 The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not [b]comprehend it.

The Word says that the Father is a Spirit.No man has seen Him or can see Him.Why? Because He is a Spirit.Because God made man in His own likeness and image, man was a Spirit/ spirit with a soul, in a body.So God must also be Spirit/ spirit, soul, and body.That's how, " the invisible God", could appear to people in the Old testament.We know, by scripture, that when Adam disobeyed God he became, spirit, soul, and body, alone.That is the core reason that men always feel that something is missing in their life, and spend their lives trying to fill that void that only Gods' Spirit can fill.In the Old testament God had a visible body( angelic), soul, and Spirit/ spirit .The glorified body of Jesus Christ is the " temple made without hands" Stephen spoke of in Acts.How is God, who is an invisible Spirit, to have a relationship with man for eternity if His sons' and daughters can't talk to Him " face to face"?The son is able to sit on the Fathers' throne with Him because the Father, who is a Spirit, is in him, joined with his spirit.This is how Father and son can be two spirits,Spirit/ spirit, in only one body.The only God we will ever see is in the glorified body of Christ.

@iamhisservant5787

3 жыл бұрын

There is only one spirit

If you are reading from the NASB that translation is flawed .the word meaning the person of Christ ( john .1;14 among the other verses of 1 john, and In luke 3;2 the word is with a small "w" you might be in error . But pay attention to Luke 3;15& 16 did john say he was the Christ .or did he say ."one mightier ...than i commeth" (Luke 3:16.....jesus having not arrived yet.... Mark 1:7&8 also verse 9 in the same chapter " And it came to pass in those days , that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee,and was baptized of john in Jordon..

@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

Your comment does not clearly present your position. There is no capitals in the original Greek so I agree that the word or logos of God was not capitalized in the original Koine Greek. God the Father's logos is not another God Person beside Himself so I can agree that the word/logos should not be capitalized. Of course, John the Baptist did not say that he was the Christ and that Jesus the Christ (Messiah) came to John to be baptized in the Jordan. So what is your point?

The ellipsis of John 1:1 extends to verse 2. All it says is who was with Whom in the beginning. Translating that into "And the word was God." is the sectarian spin of the trinitarian translators. The third clause naturally reads, "And [with] God was the word." reflecting the simple redundancy of the ellipsis.

@globalimpactministries766

6 жыл бұрын

EICineHefe Trinitarian scholars have had a great influence on the vast majority of Bible translations that we have today. Just as scientists who believe in general evolution often use their personal bias when interpreting the facts of science, so Trinitarian scholars have often used their personal bias in the various translations we have today. For example, in the sixteenth century, William Tyndale (a Greek scholar) translated the first English Bible directly from the Greek text. Prior to Tyndale, all English New Testaments were translated from the Latin Vulgate. William Tyndale translated John 1:2-3 from Erasmus’ Greek text as “IT was in the beginning with God” when referencing the Logos in John 1:1. Why did Tyndale translate the first English Bible directly from the Greek text as “it was in the beginning with God” rather than “He was in the beginning with God?” Tyndale translated the Greek pronouns “houtos” and “autous” as “IT” because nothing in the text of John 1:1 states that the “logos” of God existed as a personal “He” before the incarnation actually occurred. When we turn to 1 John 1:1, we find clarification of the apostle John’s understanding of the word (logos) that was with God in John 1:1. John wrote about an impersonal “That which was from the beginning” in 1 John 1:1 rather than a personal “he” that was from the “beginning.” Scholar Bart D. Ehrman exposed Trinitarian influence in Bible translations when he said, “Erasmus who produced the first Greek New Testament without the trinity in 1516 was forced by the priests to put the trinity in a new edition that was later translated into the King James Version of the Bible (Jesus, Interrupted pp.186-187, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture / Metzger's The Text of the New Testament, page 101-102).” Tyndale had originally translated 1 John 1:2-4 as “it was in the beginning with God,” but later Trinitarian influence caused the King James Version and subsequent translations to read, “He was in the beginning with God.” Thus we can see that there was clearly Trinitarian bias involved in the translations from the Greek text. The Greek pronouns “houtos” and “autos” are usually translated as “this” or “it” throughout the New Testament unless the context indicates that a person is in view. For example, John 6:60 says, “Therefore many of his disciples, when they heard THIS (AUTOU) said, ‘THIS (HOUTOS) is a difficult SAYING (LOGOS); who can hear IT (AUTOU)?’ ” It is hard to imagine that John 6:60 could be translated as a “he” or “him” in relation to the logos (the saying of Jesus) rather than “this” or “it.” For then the text would read, “Therefore many of his disciples, when they heard HIM said, HE is a difficult SAYING; who can hear HIM.” Obviously, the sayings of Jesus could not be a distinct person beside himself. Nor could the saying (words) of Jesus actually be Jesus himself. Therefore, the Trinitarian translators could not identify Jesus as the logos (the saying), so they translated the text as “THIS” and “IT” in relation to the LOGOS rather than a HE or a HIM. The same logical principal should also apply to John 1:1-3 because the text says nothing of a distinct God the Word Person distinct from God the Father in John 1:1. John 1:1-3, “In the beginning was the word (logos) and the word (logos) was with God” (“was with God” - “pros ton theon” is translated as “Pertaining to God” or “relating to God” in Heb. 2:17 and Heb. 5:1) and God was the word (logos) .... THIS (HOUTOS) was with God in the beginning. All things came to be through THIS/IT (AUTOU) and apart from THIS/IT (AUTOU) not one thing has come to be that has come to be.” The apostle John clarified what he means about the “logos” of God in John chapter one in his first Epistle (logos means “reason,” “logic,” or the “expressed thought”). 1 John 1:1 says, “That which was from the beginning” rather than “He who was from the beginning.” Therefore the word (logos) which was with the Father was not yet a personal child born and son given until the Father’s word (logos) was made flesh (John 1:14) and the Father’s Holy Spirit came down from heaven upon the virgin to produce the Christ child (Luke 1:35; Matthew 1:18-23). John 1:1-3 says nothing about a person actually being with another God person. The text in verse two simply states that the logos (word) was with God in the beginning. The natural reading of the text in verse three simply states that all things were created through the logos (word) listed in verse one which would naturally be interpreted as the Father’s word (the Father’s expressed thought) which pertains to Himself. For Psalm 33:6 says, “By the word of Yahweh were the heaves made, and all the host of them BY THE BREATH OF HIS MOUTH.” Trinitarian scholars cannot show that the Greek word “logos” ever means a person within the inspired scripture. Since we cannot find a single example anywhere in the Greek New Testament to show that the word “logos” ever actually means a person, we should not assume that the logos of John 1:1 is another distinct God the Word Person without the text actually saying so. Therefore, since Trinitarian Greek scholars should not have assumed that the word (logos) in John 1:1 was another God Person with God, John 1:2-3 should properly be translated as “it” or “this” was in the beginning with God rather than, “he was in the beginning with God.” John 1:1 states that “the Word (logos) was WITH (PROS) GOD. When the apostle John wrote of a person who was with another person, he never used the Greek preposition (pros) as in John 1:1. Hence, when John wrote that the word was with (pros) God, he was not saying that the logos was an actual distinct person with God before that logos was made flesh. If the apostle John had meant that a person (the Son) was actually in view with another person (the Father), he would have used one of the two Greek prepositions, “PARA” or “META,” meaning with. These are the words that he used elsewhere in his gospel narrative to describe a person actually being with another person. For example, in John 1:49 we read: "They stayed with (para) him for the day." Here John used “para” for persons staying “with” (para) another person. Likewise, in John 4:40, we read: “They asked him to stay with (para) them.” Here again we see that John regularly used the Greek word PARA for a person staying with (para) other persons. Many other examples show that John always used the Greek words “para” or “meta” for a person actually being with another person (or other persons), but we never find the apostle John ever using “pros” for a person being with another person(s). John 14:17 says, “he remained with (para) you.” John 14:25 says, “These things I spoke to you while I was with (para) you.” John further employed the use of the Greek preposition “META” (with) throughout his gospel narrative for persons being with other persons, but he never employed the Greek preposition “pros” for people being with other people. For example, John 3:22 reads, “They stayed with (meta) him.” John 3:25 says that John the Baptists disciples had "a discussion with (meta) a Jew." Here again, the preposition META is used for John’s disciples having a discussion “with” a Jew about purification. If the apostle John had meant, “in the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with the Father,” he would have used one of the two Greek prepositions PARA or META for a person actually being with another person. Since John used “pros” for God's (logos) plan or purpose being with (pros) God, he had to have meant that His foreknown plan (or message) was with Himself in the same way Paul wrote that the gospel message was with the Galatians in Galatians 2:5. “So THE TRUTH OF THE GOSPEL (not a person but the message) may stay WITH (PROS) you (hymas - a personal pronoun).” Galatians 2:5 In a similar way that the apostle John used the “logos” for the predestined MESSAGE which was “PROS” “WITH GOD” in John 1:1, so Paul used the Greek preposition PROS with the personal pronoun “hymas” to show that “the truth of the gospel (the MESSAGE) may stay WITH (PROS) YOU (PERSONAL PRONOUN “HYMAS”).” Thus, the Greek grammar in John 1:1 does not prove that the Greek word “logos” means a distinct person until that word (logos) was made flesh to become a personal child born and son given. Therefore the distinction between the Father and Son is an ontological distinction because the son had a specific time in human history when God also became a man as the human person called Christ Jesus. For our only true God the Father was able to retain His unchangeable divine attributes in the heavens as the “One God and Father” (Ephes. 4:6), while He simultaneously became a distinct human person as a true man (a true Son) through the virgin (Heb. 1:3; Heb. 2:14-17; 1 Tim. 3:16).

@ElCineHefe

6 жыл бұрын

Global Impact Ministries - Yes, when the only tool in the toolkit is a hammer, all solutions start with a nail. It's called confirmation bias. www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/science-choice/201504/what-is-confirmation-bias

@globalimpactministries766

6 жыл бұрын

EICineHefe, Confirmation Bias is clearly what Trinitarians are doing when they continue to believe in a non-scriptural timeless God the Son rather than the Biblical Son of God who is God's new human mode/manifestation of existence as a true human being. "As the Father has LIFE IN HIMSELF so also has he GRANTED the SON LIFE IN HIMSELF." John 5:26 Here we can see that the SON is the MAN who was granted a distinct human "life in himself" at a specific point in time (in the virgin conception). Yet Trinitarians continue to erroneously believe in an alleged TIMELESS GOD THE SON even though there is not a single inspired text which says "God the Son."

@ElCineHefe

6 жыл бұрын

Global Impact Ministries - That's the truth the polytheist rejects to presume to make their own gods. They did the same thing making their golden calf.

@discipleofyeshuahamashiach2694

2 жыл бұрын

@@globalimpactministries766 is there a bible translation that isn't biased towards trinitarians?

John 1:18 u read Ang 1 John 5:1

Jesus is not a god, he is "The God".

Jesus the messenger of god peace be upon him

@bilosan97

2 жыл бұрын

Yes. He is the Son of God just metaphorically. Son of God means basically the representative of God/Messiah. Got was never begotten nor does he beget.

God the father's word.

The word was God, I...I A...AM M....MAN .....THAT I.....I A...AM M....MEN.....JESUS

A lot of oneness arguments sound plausible on their own, but, as a whole, oneness doctrine requires an unnatural, strained reading of the Bible. The natural tone of the Bible, especially the new testament, is clearly trinitarian. If you have to keep explaining something away, ask yourself why.

None of the above. Jesus is the son of God. The "Word" refers to God the Father's spoken word. After all, God the father spoke everything into existence.

@globalimpactministries766

5 жыл бұрын

Amen! I believe that when the word (logos) of God references the son of God it references Jesus as the Father's word as the Father's Divine Utterance which was spoken before the world was literally created later on in time (1 Peter 1:20; Rev. 13:8).

@fromanabe8639

5 жыл бұрын

You seem to believe Jesus pre-existed his incarnation. I previously thought so too. Now I do not. God, the Father had his plan in mind which included Jesus' birth and ministry, but Jesus was not the Word mentioned in John 1. Anthony Buzzard explains that passage very well..... kzread.info/dash/bejne/dZmJtK2LebC3e7A.html kzread.info/dash/bejne/kYVtu5l6eJy4nto.html

@grantknott

4 жыл бұрын

Froman Abe Well said, I have a hard time reasoning with Trinitarians on this. It is the same with my my ex JW brothers

@fromanabe8639

3 жыл бұрын

@@gustavmahler1466 For a better understanding of John1 substitute "plan" for "word". Jesus did not and most certainly could not have existed (except as God's PLAN) until God, the Father, inserted a fertilized ovum into Mary's womb. The trinity is a false belief that came from the Catholic church around the time of the Council of Nicea in 325AD. The notion of God as a trinity was unknown before that. No Jew ever believe God is a trinity and Jews wrote the old testament and most of the new. What does God, the Father, have to say about who he is?............ Deuteronomy 2:39: "See now that I, even I, am He, and there is no God besides Me." ---- Isaiah 43:11: "I only I, am the LORD [YHVH], and there is no Saviour besides ME." ---- Isaiah 44:6: "This is what the LORD says, He who is the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of Armies: 'I am the first and I am the last, and there is no God besides Me'" ---- Isaiah 44:8: "Is there a God besides Me, or is there any other Rock? I know of none." ---- Isaiah 45:5: "I am the LORD, and there is no one else; there is no God except Me." ---- Isaiah 45:6: "So that my people know from the rising to the setting of the sun that there is no one besides Me, I am the LORD, and there is no one else." ---- Hosea 13:4: "I have been the LORD your God since the land of Egypt; and you were not to know any God except Me, because there is no Saviour beside Me." ---- Deuteronomy 4:35: "You were shown these things so that you would know that the LORD, He is God, there is no other besides Him." ---- Deuteronomy 6:4: "Hear Israel!! The Lord our God is one Lord." ---- Mark 12:32: The scribe said to Jesus, "Well said. teacher. You have truly stated that He is one, and there is no other besides Him."

Whose name is cursed in vain all over the world? Jesus. Because it breaks a commandment. That proves Jesus is God.

@kaceesnow

2 жыл бұрын

Such a baseless point

John 1:1-3 is so ambigious and hard to understand. The early fathers were obviouslly guessing as to what the word was as they could not agree. However, there are many scriptures attesting to the fact that the word is simply what comes out of the mouth expressing one's thoughts, plans and purposes. At Ps 33:6, 9 and 11 It is the spirit / power of God expressing his will in creating all things. It comes out of his mouth as his powerful breath. He speaks and things come to be. So his word is his power and authority over creation bringing them to reality. ** Isa 55:11..... so shall my word be that goes out from my mouth; it shall not return to me empty, but it shall accomplish that which I purpose, and shall succeed in the thing for which I sent it. The word is (a thing) an (IT)... according to Isa 55:11.... but has power and authority to accomplish what God purposes... The power of God's word can be SENT and returns to God fulfilling that what God planned or expressed. So it is simply God's spirit and power, his authority out of his mouth. So when Jesus was baptised, the spirit / word came down from God to give Jesus the power and authority of God's word to accomplish God's will and purpose. The word became ONE ( = flesh) with Jesus.... Jn 1:14.. God and Jesus becoming ONE in purpose to accomplish God's plan of salvation.

The proof that the Word is a person is in John 1:1b that says “and the Word was with God”, “with” indicates a face to face we just can’t deny the grammar of the text

@globalimpactministries766

5 жыл бұрын

Face to Face is Trinitarian eisegesis of the text. Face to Face in Greek is prosopon pros prosopon, but these words do not appear in John 1:1. God's word is with Himself just as all of His attributes are. "With God is wisdom and strength; counsel and understanding belongs to him." Job 12:13 When Jesus is referenced as "the word (logos) OF GOD" (Rev. 19:13), he is referenced as the word (articulated thought) of God the Father Himself which God expressed before the foundation of the world (1 Peter 1:20; Titus 1:2; Rev. 13:8; Isaiah 41:4).

I believe any which way look at it Jesus is God the Son.

@globalimpactministries766

5 жыл бұрын

john moussa, Jesus is "God manifest in the flesh" (1 Tim. 3:16) as a true human Son OF God AND Son OF man (Luke 1:35). The idea of an alleged "God the Son" as another distinct true God Person of an alleged 3 Person Deity is foreign to the words of inspired scripture (John 17:3). For the God who "came down from heaven" (John 6:38) retained all of His Divine Attributes while He also was "made like unto" all human "brethren" (Heb. 2:17). There is no need to mix up any idea of an alleged pre-incarnate Christ child (Christ means the "anointed man/son"-Acts 4:30; Matthew 16:16) before the virgin conception. The apostles Peter and Paul were simply identifying Christ (the anointed man/son) as that Spirit of God the Father (1 Peter 1:11; 2 Peter 1:21; 1 Cor. 10:4-9; 2 Cor. 3:17; Romans 8:9) before that Spirit of God the Father later "came down from heaven" (John 6:38) to assume and clothe Himself in flesh (1 Tim. 3:16) with a distinct human "life in himself" (John 5:26). This explains how Jesus Christ as a true human Son could pray, experience genuine temptations, and have the capacity to exercise his own new human will which was distinct from God the Father's Divine Will. For if Jesus did not have the capacity to exercise his own distinct human mind and will then he could not have been a true man at all (Luke 22:42; Luke 23:46; 1 Tim. 2:5). For when God also became a true man within the virgin, the Divine Life (Essence of Being-Heb. 1:3) of God the Father entered into a new human existence (Heb. 1:3; Matthew 1:20; John 16:27-28; John 17:8) with a distinct human "life in himself" (John 5:26) which he never possessed before the incarnation/virgin conception. This is why Jesus plainly stated that his human life (his human spirit-Luke 23:46) "came out from God ... the Father" (John 16:27-28) because his human life was copied ("charakter"-Heb.1:3) out of the Essence of Being of God the Father ("hypostasis"-Heb.1:3) as the only copied image of the Father's Person (Col. 1:15; 2 Cor. 4:4; Heb. 1:3) as a true human person. The Spirit of God the Father was that Rock which was Christ in the wilderness (1 Cor. 10:4-9) because the human person called Jesus Christ the Messiah is the Divine Father in His new human manifestation via virgin conception and birth (Isaiah 9:6; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 1:23). Oneness Apostolic Faith believers stress the distinctions between the Father (God as God) and the Son (God as man) in our dialogue with Trinitarians, Arians, and Unitarians because Jesus the Christ is God the Father's new human manifestation in the flesh in genuine and full human existence (Heb. 2:17). Those who fail to understand the ontological distinction between the Father (God as God) and the Son (God as man) need to have their spiritual eyes opened so they are not deceived into the pseudo-Christian sects of Arianism, Trinitarianism, and Unitarianism. Only the miraculous nature of our omnipresent Heavenly Father can come into our world as a human being while never having to lose any of His unchangeable divine attributes in the heavens (Malachi 3:6; Hebrews 13:8). And only the miraculous nature of our God can open the eyes of those who are lost by shining His revelatory light into their hearts. 2 Corinthians 4:1-6, "1Therefore seeing we have this ministry, as we have received mercy, we faint not; 2But have renounced the hidden things of dishonesty, not walking in craftiness, nor handling the word of God deceitfully; but by manifestation of the truth commending ourselves to every man's conscience in the sight of God. 3But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: 4In whom the god of this world HAS BLINDED THE MINDS OF THEM WHICH BELIEVE NOT, LEST THE LIGHT OF THE GLORIOUS GOSPEL OF CHRIST, WHO IS THE IMAGE OF GOD, SHOULD SHINE UNTO THEM. 5For we preach not ourselves, but Christ Jesus the Lord; and ourselves your servants for Jesus' sake. 6For GOD, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, HAS SHINED IN OUR HEARTS, TO GIVE THE LIGHT OF THE GLORY OF GOD IN THE FACE OF JESUS CHRIST." Free books, articles, and videos are cataloged for your convenience at ApostolicChristianFaith.com

So, Jesus is God's brain? That gives more reason to believe ik the deity of Jesus because he was literally God's ability to think, reason, plan, and speak. The weird thing about this thought to me is that this basically reduces the scripture to saying, "In the beginning God had the ability to speak and make long term plans." I seriously doubt John was impressed with the revelation that God had the ability to speak and plan. I'm not. The DANGEROUS part about this teaching is that if by Word we mean a thought then that makes each and every human after Jesus is not much different than Jesus because we all started in the mind of God. Furthermore, if the word is just God's thoughts why not just use the greek word for thought which is noema which means thought, purpose, design or mind? Lastly, if the logos was just a thought then why would John and others name that thought God? Thats a pretty high elevation. And if the word that you hear is not mine but the Father's, then that can't be true. Because if Jesus is speaking and He is the literal word of God then when ever He speaks God is speaking. We cant say that since a man's words are not an existent being beside himself, then God's thoughts cannot be. Man cannot send forth his spirit in an omnipresent way to simultaneously comfort those in the world. But, God can.

@globalimpactministries766

5 жыл бұрын

In the beginning God first expressed His Divine plan and purpose for the human ages (Titus 1:2; Rev. 13:8; Col. 1:15). Jesus as a true man was God's reason and purpose for all of His creation. Jesus was also called God in the divine utterance of God just as he was also called "the Lamb which was slain from the creation of the world." Jesus is fully God with us in genuine and full human existence. Jesus is clearly the word (logos) of God the Father rather than being a distinct God the word person!

@TheEndTimes

5 жыл бұрын

Global Impact Ministries He is called God because God dwells in Him. You bow down to Jesus and say My Lord My God! Not because that flesh is God but because you see the Son you see the Father.

@3d1k3

5 жыл бұрын

The End Times Ephesians 2:22 in whom you are being built together into a dwelling of God in the Spirit. John 14:23 Jesus answered and said to him, "If anyone loves me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him." 1 Corinthians 3:16 Do you not know that you are a temple of God and that the Spirit of God dwells in you? If God dwelling in Jesus was the only thing meant here then what makes us different? That same reasoning and logic makes us God as well. This is similar to my previous point that if Jesus is unique becauss He originated in God's thoughts them we also share in that uniqueness Jeremua 1:5 "Before I formed you in the womb I knew you,...." Psalm 139:16 Your eyes saw my unformed body; all the days ordained for me were written in your book before one of them came to be.

@TheEndTimes

5 жыл бұрын

Deon Knott what makes us different? The fullness of God dwells in Jesus Christ. That fullness is only found in the body of Christ, not a single member

@3d1k3

5 жыл бұрын

The End Times We still find ourselves in the same predicament. If the fullness of God dwells both in Jesus and in the body of Christ then collectively we should be able to accomplish and say things that Jesus said and do things that He did. We cant speak things into existence from nothing. Jesus can. We can't call ourselves the son of God the way Jesus can. The body of Christ can't rightly receive worship, Jesus can. So, I guess I'd have to ask, what do you mean by "the fullness of God". Because according to John: For He whom God has sent speaks the words of God, for God does not give the Spirit by measure. John 3:34 NKJV bible.com/114/jhn.3.34.NKJV

ill explain this again. GOD ISSSS SPIRIT SPIRIT SPIRIT SPIRIT SPIRIT SPIRIT. define spirit and you have jesus and god. GOD became flesh did he not? god is spirit those who worship him must worship in spirit and truth. the bible says jesus was resurrected and appeared to his disciples. DO you think he was a normal being like you and me?

@gustavmahler1466

4 жыл бұрын

Jesus is spirit now ''Spirit of Christ'' Romans 8:9 ''the Lord is that Spirit'' 2 Cor 3:17

@tonywolfemusic5920

2 жыл бұрын

Amen, brother. That’s the problem. The blind guides are still leading the blind into pits. Carnal minds feeding carnal minds.

, U have wrong interpretation base on

Interesting video. This is a Oneness spin that obfuscates scripture in a way that fits the Oneness preconceived fable. There is nothing is scripture that implies that the Word was conceived by God or in the mind of God. This are made up to fit the fable of the Oneness. Another scripture that the Oneness twisted is John 1.14 that they say the Word became flesh occurred when the Son was conceived in the Womb of Mary. John said no such things. John says that all things were created through the Word and there was nothing that was not created through the Word in John 1.3-4. The question to be addressed is this, did this happen in reality or did it happen in the mind of God according to the doctrine espoused by the Oneness? John 1 3 All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being. 4 In Him was life, and the life was the Light of men. 5 The Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness did not [b]comprehend it.

@globalimpactministries766

6 жыл бұрын

The Greek word "logos" literally means God's "Thoughts" that are expressed in "Words." Just as each man has his own logos ability to think and speak for himself (2 Timothy 2:17), so does the Almighty. Hence, the word of God was not created, but only the "foreknown" son (1 Peter 1:20) as a true human being had to have been created. For in the logos of God, the Son was "the firstborn of all creation" (Col. 1:15) and "the beginning of the creation of God" (Revelation 3:14) within God's expressed thoughts "before the world was" (John 17:5) created. God first chose His chosen servant (Isaiah 43:10:11) and then He "chose us in him before the creation of the world" and "predestined us through Jesus Christ (Ephesians 1:4-5)." Since God "calls the things which be not as though they were" (Rom. 4:17), God already thought and spoke of the Son as if he already was. Why did Tyndale translate the first English Bible directly from the Greek text as “it was in the beginning with God” rather than “He was in the beginning with God?” Tyndale translated the Greek pronouns “houtos” and “autous” as “IT” because nothing in the text of John 1:1 states that the “logos” of God existed as a personal “He” before the incarnation actually occurred. When we turn to 1 John 1:1, we find clarification of the apostle John’s understanding of the word (logos) that was with God in John 1:1. John wrote about an impersonal “That which was from the beginning” in 1 John 1:1 rather than a personal “he” that was from the beginning.” Scholar Bart D. Ehrman exposed Trinitarian influence in Bible translations when he said, “Erasmus who produced the first Greek New Testament without the trinity in 1516 was forced by the priests to put the trinity in a new edition that was later translated into the King James Version of the Bible (Jesus, Interrupted pp.186-187, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture / Metzger's The Text of the New Testament, page 101-102).” Tyndale had originally translated 1 John 1:2-4 as “it was in the beginning with God,” but later Trinitarian influence caused the King James Version and subsequent translations to read, “He was in the beginning with God.” Thus we can see that there was clearly Trinitarian bias involved in the translations from the Greek text. The Greek pronouns “houtos” and “autos” are usually translated as “this” or “it” throughout the New Testament unless the context indicates that a person is in view. For example, John 6:60 says, “Therefore many of his disciples, when they heard THIS (AUTOU) said, “THIS (HOUTOS) is a difficult SAYING (LOGOS); who can hear IT (AUTOU)?” It is hard to imagine that John 6:60 could be translated as a “he” or “him” in relation to the logos (the saying of Jesus) rather than “this” or “it.” For then the text would read, “Therefore many of his disciples, when they heard HIM said, HE is a difficult SAYING; who can hear HIM.” Obviously, the sayings of Jesus could not be a distinct person beside himself. Nor could the saying (words) of Jesus actually be Jesus himself. Therefore the Trinitarian translators could not identify Jesus as the logos (the saying), so they translated the text as “THIS” and “IT” in relation to the LOGOS rather than a HE or a HIM. The same logical principal should also apply to John 1:1-3 because the text says nothing of a distinct God the Word Person distinct from God the Father in John 1:1. John 1:1-3, “In the beginning was the word (logos) and the word (logos) was with God” (“was with God” - “pros ton theon” is translated as “Pertaining to God” or “relating to God” in Heb. 2:17 and Heb. 5:1) and God was the word (logos) .... THIS (HOUTOS) was with God in the beginning. All things came to be through THIS/IT (AUTOU) and apart from THIS/IT (AUTOU) not one thing has come to be that has come to be.” The apostle John clarified what he means about the “logos” of God in John chapter one in his first Epistle (logos means “reason,” “logic,” or the “expressed thought”). 1 John 1:1 says, “That which was from the beginning” rather than “He who was from the beginning.” Therefore the word (logos) which was with the Father was not yet a personal child born and son given until the Father’s word (logos) was made flesh (John 1:14) and the Father’s Holy Spirit came down from heaven upon the virgin to produce the Christ child (Luke 1:35; Matthew 1:18-23). John 1:1-3 says nothing about a person actually being with another God person. The text in verse two simply states that the logos (word) was with God in the beginning. The natural reading of the text in verse three simply states that all things were created through the logos (word) listed in verse one which would naturally be interpreted as the Father’s word (the Father’s expressed thought) which pertains to Himself. For Psalm 33:6 says, “By the word of Yahweh were the heaves made, and all the host of them BY THE BREATH OF HIS MOUTH.”

@phillipmutchell7362

6 жыл бұрын

Have you considered the notion that everything that is created is the word made flesh; just as Adam was) hence Christ is rightly called a second Adam, but uniquely - the first and the last - conceived in Mary). Note how the Common English Bible translate Hebrews 1:3. 'The Son is the light of God’s glory and the imprint of God’s being. He maintains everything with his powerful message. After he carried out the cleansing of people from their sins, he sat down at the right side of the highest majesty' Are we to understand that The Christ who was given all authority is upholding the physical creation as per the older translations OR that the entire New Covenant is founded on Christ's' authority, just as the older covenant was founded on Moses' authority as God's chosen mediator/messenger of his will. This isn't to make Jesus divine as he wasn't clearly stating 'I am a man' yet so few will believe his own plain testimony, or Peter telling us clearly that Jesus was 'a man approved of God' when we grasp that the new testament is concerned with covenant change then such comments as firstborn of all creation make perfect sense as Christ is indeed the First in the New Covenant all others exist only as they are born in him. He now has power, so he is a 'mighty god' he is our father sufficient to bring us all to his promised reward unlike Moses.' Did I conceive all these people? Did I give birth to them, that you would say to me, ‘Carry them at the breast, as a nurse carries an unweaned child,’ to the fertile land that you promised their ancestors?' (Num. 11:14) This is why the NC is founded upon a better promises because God has indeed 'given such authority to men' that in Jesus his word will accomplish that where unto he sends it. To the praise of his marvellous grace.

The God was the LoGOS. It does not say a god. If you say "a god" you now have 2 gods. You appealing to arianism to support that the LoGOS was a thought is mind blowing. Arianism is herecy and so is your sabalianism. You quote tertulian to support your argument and then refute him when he doesn't line up with your theology. So in quoting John 1:1, was John trying to say that the father was towards (face to face) his tought? That is what the greek says; The LoGos was towards the GOD. Stick to quoting scripture.

Brother , Jesus was not created but he already exist before the Father crated the first creation.

@fromanabe8639

3 жыл бұрын

Not so. Jesus was definitely in God, the Father's >plan< for the salvation of humanity. But he did not, in fact, exist until God, the Father, implanted a fertilized ovum in Mary's womb. The trinity is a false concept. God is ONE, not two or three.

@bilosan97

2 жыл бұрын

The spirit and the logos had always existed. Jesus was created in the womb of mary and after that he received the spirit of God. This happened AFTER he was created and born into the world. The word BECAME Jesus. Because God spoke him into existence. Like God spoke the light into existence "Let there be light" God said "let it be" and thus created Jesus.

Jesus is not god he's a prophet of god

@randyw.8781

5 жыл бұрын

Jesus is the one the Father set apart as His very own "and" sent into the world. He is Gods Son. Psalm 2 I will proclaim the Lord’s decree: He said to me, “You are my son; today I have become your father. 8 Ask me, and I will make the nations your inheritance, the ends of the earth your possession. 9 You will break them with a rod of iron you will dash them to pieces like pottery.” “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed. Then Jesus came to them and said, "All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. God firstborn would be a being not a people or word or radiance and such a being would make such a statement Very truly I tell you," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

The WORD OF GOD IS THE GREAT DECEIVER OF ALL TIME ...THE WORD IS FINALLY REVEALED, THE WORD WAS MAN...THE WORD OF GOD IS ..,I AM THAT I AM...THE WORD MADE FLESH IS .MEN ...ADAM AND EVE HE CREATED THEM..PLURAL OF MAN IS A MEN NOT AMEN..AMEIN..ITS FOR AMEN RA .SUN GOD OF EGYPT .

Sorry but a person isn't a thought.

@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

John 5:26 states that the Son's life was "granted" by the Father. "For as the Father has life in Himself, so has HE GRANTED THE SON TO HAVE A LIFE IN HIMSELF." The first early Christian writer to suggest that the Son had a timeless existence was Origen in the early third century. How could the Son be said to be "the beginning OF the creation OF GOD" in Rev. 3:14 if he was always a timeless Son? Hebrews 1:5 is also very emphatic when it says that the Father would be a Father to the Son and that the Son would be a Son to the Father in the prophetic future.

@president197961

7 жыл бұрын

John 1:1. With God father he stood before the father. Was God calling him deity. He became flesh and was amongst us. Not a thought. A person. He told the Pharisees before Moses was "I am". Before his incarnation. Revelation he's the alpha and the omega. Future. Only the true God holds these characters. He will return lord and King. You're a false teacher and will stand at judgement seat of Christ Jesus.

@president197961

7 жыл бұрын

If the father called Jesus God. Then he must be the only true living God. Word of God says their is only one God all else are false idols. You're walking yourself into trap.

@Mecaliman

7 жыл бұрын

You said: > "John 1:1. With God father he stood before the father." With your above statement you have two Gods. Can one God person stand before another God person and there still be only one true God (John 17:3)? Not to mention another God person the Holy Spirit. Jesus is the *"image"* of the invisible God (Col 1:15 the only true God John 17:3) John 14:7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him. John 14:8 Philip saith unto him, *Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us*. John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, *Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me*, Philip? *he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?* John 14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. If we asked Jesus "shew us the Father" we would get the same answer "he that hath seen me hath seen the FATHER" Jesus is *"My Lord and My God"* according to Thomas a Hebrew (John 20:28). Thomas did not call Jesus "God the son" a title made up by trinitarians but *"My God"* the only God the Hebrews believed in Malachi 2:10 *"Have we not all one Father hath not *One God** created us"

@president197961

7 жыл бұрын

James Morris I'm telling you what the scriptures says. The word God can have different names. In this case its plural. One God meaning a unit in three persons. You're trying to change who God is to meet your doctrine. Study the words there and you're see that I'm right. I'm sure you have taken math classes and understand a unit is one with many parts.

This is theos. Meaning deity. The only true God.

@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

1 Peter 1:20, Rev. 13:8, Col. 1:15, and Ephesians 1:4 prove that the Father already spoke everything about the Son (Logos = "expressed thought") before the creation of the world. Hence, the Son was already called "God" by the Father in God's expressed thought (His Logos) before the world was created. That is why the Father already identified the future child born and Son given as "God" in passages such as Isaiah 9:6, Psalm 118:14, Psalm 45:6-7 and Heb. 1:8-9.

@president197961

7 жыл бұрын

Logos means to speak or tell. The Gospel of John identifies the Logos, through which all things are made, as divine (theos) or deity and further identifies Jesus Christ as the incarnate Logos. This only means the true living almighty God.

@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

president197961 How can God's expressed thought (God speaking) be a coequal God the expressed thought Person as a God the Speaking Person? Just as men have their own logos (expressed thought) so does God. Jesus is the expressed thought of the Father (the Father's Logos = expressed thought) as the Father incarnate (Luke 1:35; Matt. 1:20). That is why Isaiah 9:6 identifies Jesus as the "Mighty God" and as the "Everlasting Father" with us as a true human son.

@president197961

7 жыл бұрын

Global Impact Ministries your forgetting. Logos came in the flesh. He lived amongst us. Jesus told the Pharisees. Before Abraham "I am". Making himself equal to God. He's also is the alpha and the omega. Same as the Old Testament of God. First and last. Salvation only comes through God. Jesus is our salvation, redeemer King. Every knee shall bow to Jesus. Only God we bow to. All power and glory belongs to Jesus. Once again only God has that. You can beat around and try to disprove his deity. (Meaning God). The word speaks for itself. I could quote different passages old and New Testament and prove the trinity. Jesus is God and lord. You too will know that one day. I'm sorry to say your a false teacher.

@globalimpactministries766

7 жыл бұрын

president197961 We believe in Christ as "Immanuel" "God with us" as a true man, but we do not believe that He is a coequally distinct God Person Number Two. The text says that the Word (the word of the Father) was made flesh (John 1:14) and dwelt among us. Philippians 2:10-11 informs us that all of humanity will one day bow to Jesus and confess him as LORD. But Isaiah 45:23 shows that the Father is the speaker (cited in Philippians 2:10-11) who says that all of humanity will bow and swear to Him (the context prove the Father) as LORD (YAHWEH). Philippians 2:9-11, "God highly exalted him, and bestowed on Him the name which is ABOVE EVERY NAME [Yahweh is the only Name above every Name], 10 so that at the name of Jesus [Yahweh Saves] EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and that EVERY TONGUE WILL CONFESS that Jesus Christ is Lord [Yahweh is translated as Kurios throughout the Greek Septuagint], to the glory of God the Father." Notice that the context of Isaiah 45:21-23 shows that Yahweh God is the speaker Who says, “Declare and set forth your case; Indeed, let them consult together. Who has announced this from of old? Who has long since declared it? Is it not I, the LORD [YHWH]? And there is no other God besides Me, A righteous God and a Savior; There is none except Me. 22 “Turn to Me and be saved, all the ends of the earth; For I am God, and there is no other. 23 “I have sworn by Myself, The word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness And will not turn back, That TO Me EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, EVERY TONGUE WILL SWEAR allegiance." Anyone who compares the context of Isaiah 45:23 with Philippians 2:9-11 should clearly see that to bow the knee to Jesus and to confess him as Lord (the context proves at the end of this age) is to bow the knee to the Father and confess that the Father is Lord. Hence, all bowing and confession to Jesus as Lord (at the end of this age) is all “to the glory of God the Father” alone rather than to the glory of two other alleged coequal members of a Trinity (Isaiah 45:14-15 says that men “will bow” to the Messiah saying, “surely God is in you, there is none else, there is no other God. Truly you are a God who hides Himself, O God of Israel the Savior”; Zechariah 14:9 “And Yahweh shall be King over all the earth; in that day there shall be One Yahweh and His Name One”). This is not what we would expect if the Son is a coequally distinct true God Person beside the Father. For why would bowing the knee to Jesus and confessing him as LORD be “to the glory of God the Father?” If the Son is a coequally distinct true God Person, then the Son should also have His own divine glory and dignity rather than just the Father. The words of Isaiah 45:23 in context prove that Yahweh God the Father is the speaker who says, "The word (Jesus is the word/logos in John 1:1, 14) has gone forth from My Mouth (the Father's mouth) in righteousness and will not turn back, That TO ME EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, EVERY TONGUE WILL SWEAR ALLEGIANCE." The context of Isaiah 45:23 proves that the Father is the speaker who said that His word (the Father’s word is Jesus - John 1:1, 14; Rev. 19:13) “has gone forth” from His “mouth” (i.e. the Father’s mouth). Since the Son of God is clearly the word that has gone out of the Father’s mouth, it is nonsensical to believe that a timelessly coequal true God Person could have gone forth from the Father’s anthropomorphic mouth while being timeless and coequal. Therefore the Son of God existed as the logos of God the Father (as the Father’s expressed thought) that was later made flesh to become the Christ child. Since Philippians 2:10-11 cites Isaiah 45:23, we know that to bow and confess Jesus as LORD is to bow and swear "TO ME" [TO THE FATHER]. John 14:24 proves that Jesus is the Father's word (logos) who "has gone forth from" the Father's "mouth", so when every knee bows and confesses Jesus Christ as LORD, we know that all are bowing and confessing Jesus Christ as YAHWEH because the deity in Jesus ("God with us" as a man) is the deity of the Father who gets all of "the glory". For if Jesus was a coequally distinct divine person, then the scripture would say, "to the glory of the Son and the Father." The Father gets all the glory because the Son is "the brightness of His (the Father's) glory and the express image of His (the Father's) Person" as a fully complete human person (Heb. 1:3). Furthermore, how could the Son as the Son have always existed as an alleged Yahweh God the Son Person while the Name of Yahweh was “bestowed on Him” at a specific point in time? Can God as a true God Person be “given” or “bestowed” the Name Yahweh while always eternally existing as a timeless and coequal true God Person, distinct from the Father? Therefore the Trinitarian idea of a timeless God the Son cannot harmonize with Philippians 2:9 and other scriptures which state that the Son was given the Father’s Name in time (Yahweh Saves - John 5:43; John 17:11; Jer. 23:6). Hebrews 2:14-17 proves that the "He" who "partook of flesh and blood" is Yahweh who has become our salvation by being made as a fully complete human son in order to save us. Hence, the Father’s own Name (Yahweh) was given to the Son when the angel gave the Son’s name to Joseph (Matthew 1:21). Therefore the Holy Spirit of the only true God miraculously became a man within the virgin in order to “save His people from their sins” (Matthew 1:20-23, Luke 1:35, 1 Tim. 3:16).