My name is Rob Plummer, and I am a New Testament professor at Southern Seminary in Louisville, KY. This website is my feeble effort to provide ongoing accountability to busy pastors to read Greek daily and progress in their ability. Don’t yet have the 2-minute video waiting for you in your Inbox every morning?
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Thanks
pheme is cognate with "fame", cf Latin "fama".
Greek with an American pronunciation is not Greek.
"hilasterion" is hard to translate and is, essentially, not really a known word. "Propitiation" is a polite deferral to the Latin Vulgate which uses "propitiatio". Unfortunately, I have been unable to find any old lexical definitions for "propitiation" or "propitiatio". Saying "propitiatio" means "propitiation" is unhepful. Saying "propitiation" means "atonement" is unhelpful and probably untrue - "atonement" is a relatively new word in English and cannot be construed as a mere synonym of "propitiation". Therefore translation "hilasterion" as "mercy seat" is an honest and safe choice. Translating it as "propitiation" is also safe because it is the choice that others made long ago and we trust that. Translating it "atonement" is... wrong.
Lol I don't feel so bad now when I have to reread a word when I mangle the pronunciation
I agree with mercy seat and am also on the subjective genitive side of pistis christou, and so really appreciate your open discussion of it and willing to bring attention to the fact that "faith in Jesus Christ" is an interpretive decision and the greek does not demand it. Many on your side of the debate wouldn't even bring those options up to their audience. Thank you!
To me, using "propitiation" is just as opaque to many people (and they might not know it, since they hear it all the time), and I prefer "mercy seat" because (1) you can look it up in the OT to see how Jesus is the fulfillment and what it meant (propitiation), and (2) it leans into the literary beauty of the Bible (a miraculous work of art!), rather than theologizing so the beauty is lost. This is a symbol of propitiation that anyone who knows their Bible can understand, so I don't think it's a place to jump to the "meaning" (although I'm not against that in *every* case necessarily).
I do agree with Schreiner on this. As it establishes Jesus as the antitype of the OT sacrificial system. That His sacrifice, once for all, replaced all those of OT Israel. The CSB has become one of my favorite translations.
The Greek word ἱλαστήριον (hilasterion) in Romans 3:25-26, often translated as "propitiation," has rich theological implications. It connects Jesus to the Old Testament concept of the Mercy Seat of the Ark of the Covenant, where the high priest would sprinkle the blood of the atoning sacrifice on the Day of Atonement. While the Greek construction is not a true double accusative, but rather a prepositional phrase with object, highlighting Jesus’ substitutionary role as the means of atonement, the repetition of ἱλαστήριον emphasizes Jesus's role as both the sacrificial offering and the place of atonement. This connection suggests that Jesus is the fulfillment of the Old Testament sacrificial system, the means by which God's wrath is appeased and forgiveness is granted to believers.
I've been going through the recent release of The Legacy Bible which is sort of an update to the NASB and wondered if you've checked it out. The use the divine name instead of the generic "Lord" is great! However, it seems to lack in other areas, such as lack of meaning just to accomodate making a change. Change is NOT good when it's done for no reason!
Correct observation about the LSB. I feel the same.
I study both Modern and Biblical Greek, though I'm hardly an expert in either. In Modern Greek, Gelao is to laugh. Kata often means down. I'm suspecting that the root of kategelon, then, is "to laugh down" - which is quite a word picture. (please correct me if I'm wrong)
The flute players are apparently part of mourning? Was this a Hebrew custom or (probably) only among a somwhat hellenized Jewish upper class?
"think evil" ( NKJV) V.S. "thinking evil" ( NASB-95) HOW can one know which is correct/more literal?
Appreciate the parsing and syntax of the text. Thank you Dr. Plummer.
Thanks so much for doing this.
Question regarding the parsing of θαρσέω to the imperative θαρσει. As I have learned recently that the Present Active Imperative 2nd Person Singular ending is 'ε'. Why is an 'ι' added to the ending to form 'ει'? Always enjoy these videos
When you add ε to θαρσέω the two epsilons contract into ει… θαρσε + ε = θάρσει. You can look up online how contract vowels work in Koine Greek for extra information.
@@noahglomski915 That makes sense. Thanks for that major tid bit
What is PCPA ?
Thank you.
God does not "declare" us righteous he Makes us righteous as Jesus says elsewhere, 'make a tree good and its fruit will be good'...he did not say; 'declare a tree good and its fruit will be good'...God is not a liar; he does not just announce something so if it is not actually being made so!
He does both. He declares it in Romans 5:1, as that is the meaning of justification… but I would be careful to conflate declaring righteous from making righteous. They aren’t to be separated but distinguished. We are justified in the declaration of the imputation of Christ’s righteousness and sanctification is the transformative aspect in conjunction with justification. Both are necessary and not to be separated, only distinguished as they represent two different aspects of the benefits of our redemption
Fewf I was worried my beloved NET Bible has made some error. Great points.
The Analytical Lexicon of the NT says, ἀπολύτρωσις, εως, ἡ (1) literally, as an action a buying back of a slave or captive through payment of a ransom; hence setting free, release (HE 11:35); (2) figuratively; (a) of rescue from sin redemption, deliverance (RO 3:24); (b) of the release of the body from earthly limitations and mortality liberation, deliverance (RO 8:23); (c) of Christ as the one who sets free from sin redeemer, deliverer (1C 1:30)
Interesting discussion. Given the NET is quite willing to be experimental in readings, I'm surprised they didn't search for a distinct translation here.
Thank you very much! I follow you every day
Onlyism is a form of insanity. Still, the meaning is static and sound exegesis has been handed down through the generations. It's okay to have a translation that's close enough, as long as you also have a teacher who can get you the rest of the way across the finish line.
I look forward to this Greek education every morning. Thanks Robert
Wow and all this time we baptists were told the Bible was written in King James English 🤣🤣🤣 In all seriousness thank you great stuff!!!🙏🏻
Please can you do Colossians 1:16 next video
Thank you again for sharing.
Thank you. This helps.
I honestly can’t believe that this scripture plainly teaches that there isn’t a second or third person in the trinity.. this scripture actually teaches the oneness of God and the truth is that you can’t see it.. but it’s there in plain sight… If you need assistance I can definitely help you.. if you’re interested and willing to be corrected?
Genesis 1 is ELOHIM (Lucifer and the fallen angels). They made this realm. They made man in their image. (tares) Man is an idol, a trap to hunt angels. Genesis 2:7 the Lord God forms His representative in their system. (wheat) One Gospel: Gospel (GOOD ANGEL) of Reconciliation. Jesus Christ came into THEIR kingdom to reconcile fallen angels unto Himself. We are the fallen angels (ELOHIM) kept in DNA chains of darkness. If you do not confess being a fallen angel in Lucifer's kingdom, then you are an unbeliever. Unbeliever = those that claim to be made in the image of ELOHIM(gods). REPENT FALLEN ANGELS.
Just stop scribbling in the bible... horrible.... just horrible. So disrespectful! Like kids.
metal rod in lighting storm indeed, hilarious! You are so right... funny that people argue for the inspiration of an English translation _over_ the Koine as if God somehow made a mistake timing The Lord's incarnation 600-1000y *_before there even was an "English" language_*
Appreciate it. Thx!
Thank you.
Compared to what Greek text? I think the choice is far more important than which of the translations into English, but there are so many with many weaknesses.
Appreciate the analysis; but was hoping for how "glory" functions in this text.
Here is the referenced video about the KJV kzread.info/dash/bejne/eJ6a2Navncq6Y9Y.htmlsi=LhiJr3sMLRr5Tou6
The AV DOES render it in the present tense: "all HAVE sinned and (all) come short..." It is a mistake, IMHO, to bring the 'HAVE' forward to apply it to the next verb.
Breaks my heart that we will go savage over translations.. so much for no greater love being dying in another's place when our own opinions matter more than speaking life to a fellow image bearer. 😢 Great videos, thank you for sharing your muchness and doing them!
Theology will often make the referent the sin in Adam; with that view, is there a syntactical breadth that would be illustrative of that doctrine?
nope.. sorry. God says quite plainly it is *_your own sin_* that has separated you from God [Isaiah 59:2]... not Adam's... as much as Gen 2 Christians would like to imagine they are saved at 5y old from Adam's sin.... quite plainly, Paul is telling us that we have all sinned and are currently falling short of the glory God.
The joke is especially appropriate the day after IndyDay.
Amen. And Happy 4th
That is good news!
Thank you. Greetings from Westwood Baptist Church in Nashville, Tennessee.
A good example of syllepsis. Also, fun note, the Greek name ‘Jason’ comes from the Greek word for doctor :)
If any man will open the door, I will come in to him and sup with him, and he with Me.
I wonder if there is an implied connotation for "sinners"? Would these also be people too close to the Romans (like the tax collectors), or simply people not as strict in law obedience as the Pharisees?
I don't have any direct expertise, but NT scholars usually connote 'sinners' with sex workers. I suspect the authors of the gospels are using the term ironically, since all have sinned, including the Pharisees. I don't know if there was a first-century idiom that the scholars are using.
@@DaleBoyce2012 thank you. Right, I thought of prostitutes as well and in fact realize only now that hamartolôn has no article, thus could be feminine. There are more specific terms (like porne) but it might be a euphemism or slightly less specific.
wonderful