You explain everything really well, even better than my teacher. 😁 Thanks 🙏
@nuclearrambo31672 күн бұрын
I would use fourier transform
@individual1st6483 күн бұрын
ive been trying for a few weeks to blindly get a line segment rotating at one endpoint, but i just couldn't figure it out (i knew it had to do with y=tan(a) but i didn't know what bounds i should insert) then i figured, maybe i just look up how to make a clock! and there we have it (thanks!)
@Halleluyah8311 күн бұрын
Wow😮
@KSM94K11 күн бұрын
Maybe I didn't understand it very well, why the Psi 1 and Psi 2 don't they cancel here? In the residue theorem proof something like that used to be cancelled
@Saqouro13 күн бұрын
This is really helpful. Thanks
@KSM94K14 күн бұрын
You're seriously underrated, nice explanation
@rashmipandey920115 күн бұрын
Nice
@physicstube812415 күн бұрын
I never thought the job could be done this easier 🎉
@marrom680815 күн бұрын
If i want to reflect relative to what a is, i.e. if y = x then a = 1 and then we have ((1, 0), (0, -1)), does this mean ((1,0),(0,-a)), so i.e. a = 2 means ((1,0), (0, -2)) ?
@txikitofandango17 күн бұрын
This is so wholesome
@luaiderar660024 күн бұрын
I think I saw you outside melbourne central. Apparently you're my friends calc 1 tutor at unimelb lmaoo.
@qncubed324 күн бұрын
:O
@kianheus248724 күн бұрын
Hi, loving the videos so far! I also have a question: at 15:08 you say to simply assume the existence of a C^k atlast, but how does that work in practice? Surely you can't just assume one to exist out of the blue.
@weselise248927 күн бұрын
you saved me thank you
@nicholasnick649929 күн бұрын
Great video
@meruem6022Ай бұрын
Hello @qncubed3 , I wanted to know if you have any bibliographical reference on solving the Basel problem using that method
@user-wu8yq1rb9tАй бұрын
I missed you..... Just tell me where are you??!!
@buddychumpalfriendhomiebud9242Ай бұрын
For a simpler method, substitute u=1/x , move around some things and replace u with x and you'll see that the integral is equal to its negative
@nizogosАй бұрын
Can't you say that 1/abs(z^4+1) <1/abs(z^4) ? Simply because the right fraction has a smaller denominator, without going into triangle inequality stuff
@qncubed3Ай бұрын
This only works if z^4 is positive. If z^4=-2 for example then you would get 1<1/2
@natnaelayele8388Ай бұрын
The most helpful video on the topic in the entire KZread
@anshuagrawal7364Ай бұрын
Amazing!!! Could you please continue posting more videos on Manifolds? 🙏🙏🙏
@BernhardBolzano985Ай бұрын
Great work!Ad maiora semper...
@smftrsddvjiou6443Ай бұрын
funny, but useless.
@iphilip1Ай бұрын
Can you still show the analyse program that you have in your CAS link in you description or comments section
@mai1906Ай бұрын
what a loser
@xxux1Ай бұрын
Seems the link is not working😅
@iphilip1Ай бұрын
yeah
@itisajem8645Ай бұрын
Interesting the result looks like the reflection formula for the gamma function but with 1/n
@ayandas8299Ай бұрын
Bro you are the goat
@nuclearrambo3167Ай бұрын
cOnSeRvAtIvE vEcToR fIElD
@user-qk5ce5rr7uАй бұрын
thank you, I ask you one more series expansion of tan(z) 31:17 I want to learn principle of this series of tan(z).
@Mouse-qm8wnАй бұрын
Thanks a lot for great videos ❤😊. Can you please give examples of when to use this in real life or is it only relevant in general relativity?
@Caller8194Ай бұрын
good video
@user-qk5ce5rr7uАй бұрын
Great!,thank you for your lecture, would you explain series of tan(z)(31:17)? I don't know result of this series.
@LatifaEssaАй бұрын
Vraiment c est super Je sais pas comment je peux remercier
@hyeonsseungsseungiАй бұрын
5:34 It's easier not to reduse (s+i) or (s-i) because (i+i)^4 or (-i-i)^4 is 16, so thier denominator becomes rational.
@williammartin4416Ай бұрын
Thanks!
@SarmadnessАй бұрын
Great explanation, thanks!
@NeptoidАй бұрын
The Jacob Collier of Physics
@GingerMathАй бұрын
After two years I found this video and it makes sense!! Thank you <3
@anandarunakumar6819Ай бұрын
Great explanation. Nice teaser to conformal technique.
@matejcataric2259Ай бұрын
This channel rocks!! Greetings from Croatia.
@PlayingcivilizationАй бұрын
Much easier with double integration I = \int_0^\infty \int_a^b sin(tx)/x dt dx = [using Foubini] = \int_a^b \int_0^\infty sin(tx) / x dx dt = \int_a^b pi/2 dt = pi/2 * (b - a)
@MuhammadYogavasАй бұрын
Is it possible to prové it with only gamma function ? Because our Professor didnt teach us the Beta function yet
@richard_larrainАй бұрын
0 is not a pole of logarithm
@PlayingcivilizationАй бұрын
Hi Could you please do a video about integral from 0 to infty of ln(x)/((x+1)*x^{3/4}). I was trying to solve it using complex integration but failed to find proper contour:(
@devanshgupta3935Ай бұрын
My final today had this exact integral. I did kind of figure out that we need to take a Gaussian integral to come to the result but used some QUESTIONABLE mathematics. Wish I'd watched this vid earlier. Anyways this channel is absolutely amazing! Please keep it up.
Пікірлер
You explain everything really well, even better than my teacher. 😁 Thanks 🙏
I would use fourier transform
ive been trying for a few weeks to blindly get a line segment rotating at one endpoint, but i just couldn't figure it out (i knew it had to do with y=tan(a) but i didn't know what bounds i should insert) then i figured, maybe i just look up how to make a clock! and there we have it (thanks!)
Wow😮
Maybe I didn't understand it very well, why the Psi 1 and Psi 2 don't they cancel here? In the residue theorem proof something like that used to be cancelled
This is really helpful. Thanks
You're seriously underrated, nice explanation
Nice
I never thought the job could be done this easier 🎉
If i want to reflect relative to what a is, i.e. if y = x then a = 1 and then we have ((1, 0), (0, -1)), does this mean ((1,0),(0,-a)), so i.e. a = 2 means ((1,0), (0, -2)) ?
This is so wholesome
I think I saw you outside melbourne central. Apparently you're my friends calc 1 tutor at unimelb lmaoo.
:O
Hi, loving the videos so far! I also have a question: at 15:08 you say to simply assume the existence of a C^k atlast, but how does that work in practice? Surely you can't just assume one to exist out of the blue.
you saved me thank you
Great video
Hello @qncubed3 , I wanted to know if you have any bibliographical reference on solving the Basel problem using that method
I missed you..... Just tell me where are you??!!
For a simpler method, substitute u=1/x , move around some things and replace u with x and you'll see that the integral is equal to its negative
Can't you say that 1/abs(z^4+1) <1/abs(z^4) ? Simply because the right fraction has a smaller denominator, without going into triangle inequality stuff
This only works if z^4 is positive. If z^4=-2 for example then you would get 1<1/2
The most helpful video on the topic in the entire KZread
Amazing!!! Could you please continue posting more videos on Manifolds? 🙏🙏🙏
Great work!Ad maiora semper...
funny, but useless.
Can you still show the analyse program that you have in your CAS link in you description or comments section
what a loser
Seems the link is not working😅
yeah
Interesting the result looks like the reflection formula for the gamma function but with 1/n
Bro you are the goat
cOnSeRvAtIvE vEcToR fIElD
thank you, I ask you one more series expansion of tan(z) 31:17 I want to learn principle of this series of tan(z).
Thanks a lot for great videos ❤😊. Can you please give examples of when to use this in real life or is it only relevant in general relativity?
good video
Great!,thank you for your lecture, would you explain series of tan(z)(31:17)? I don't know result of this series.
Vraiment c est super Je sais pas comment je peux remercier
5:34 It's easier not to reduse (s+i) or (s-i) because (i+i)^4 or (-i-i)^4 is 16, so thier denominator becomes rational.
Thanks!
Great explanation, thanks!
The Jacob Collier of Physics
After two years I found this video and it makes sense!! Thank you <3
Great explanation. Nice teaser to conformal technique.
This channel rocks!! Greetings from Croatia.
Much easier with double integration I = \int_0^\infty \int_a^b sin(tx)/x dt dx = [using Foubini] = \int_a^b \int_0^\infty sin(tx) / x dx dt = \int_a^b pi/2 dt = pi/2 * (b - a)
Is it possible to prové it with only gamma function ? Because our Professor didnt teach us the Beta function yet
0 is not a pole of logarithm
Hi Could you please do a video about integral from 0 to infty of ln(x)/((x+1)*x^{3/4}). I was trying to solve it using complex integration but failed to find proper contour:(
My final today had this exact integral. I did kind of figure out that we need to take a Gaussian integral to come to the result but used some QUESTIONABLE mathematics. Wish I'd watched this vid earlier. Anyways this channel is absolutely amazing! Please keep it up.
soo cool.